Does IRS have it's own screwy definition of FMV?
We all know what FMV is and that it results from a fair market. But I'm hearing a bastardization of this when it comes to selling inherited property.
I, and my two siblings, sold a farm within 6 months of inheriting it last year. We know the concept of stepped-up basis but who knows what the FMV was?? The farm had been in the family since 1916. We didn't hire an appraiser. We put the property on the market and asked a reasonable price according to what we saw in the market. We took an offer nearly 20% less.
To me, that's the real life example of FMV establishing itself.
But now cometh tax time, and my brother decides he owes taxes on his share of the sale and sought "expert advice." What he got was a simpleton's answer, that is, to look at the county tax appraisal for assessed value in order to calculate his tax. That made me laugh.
Unfortunately, you can even find this answer on the web.
In my opinion I owe NO tax. Will IRS see differently? Do they have another understanding of FMV?
I don't believe I have to REPORT anything. What's to report? I received no income. I sold immediately and made no improvements. There was no gain.
But now my brother is going by a different interpretation from his "expert" and will report this sale and pay his tax.
I believe this probably happens alot because people don't understand the term. I expect the same from an IRS auditor should I be called in.
But am I wrong?
Any advice going forward?